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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 21.06.2025 02:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

I'm British and feel ashamed of the crimes of British colonialism. What should I do?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's the biggest myth about illegal immigrants?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What would Spanish sound like if only latin and Greek words were used, like some romance analogy to anglish?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.